-Why are PPFs different between countries and why is cost (opportunity)
increasing?
-PPFs are different because of different factor endowments (some nations
have more L,K,land and natural resources) and different technology.
-Cost is increasing because factors are not homogeneous and are not
used in the same intensity (K/L ratio differs).
-Marginal Rate of Substitution (MRS) is the slope (absolute value) of
the IC.
MRS indicates the amount of Y that can be given
up in order to gain one more unit of X and be on the same IC.
-Case study 3.1, p.69: Composition of exports and imports: US, EU and
Japan.
With trade Px/Py will be between 1/4 and 4.
Since Px/Py will be higher than 1/4, nation 1 will increase production
of good X.
and nation 2 will increase production of good Y (since Px/Py will be
lower than 4 (which means Py/Px is higher with trade => nation 2 will increase
production of good Y).
-What will the new Px/Py be? somewhere between 1/4 and 4, where
exports of Y (X) is equal to imports of Y (X), i.e. zero net exports (fig.3.4,
p. 71). Trial and error reveals Px/Py =1.
-Nation 1 produces at point B but consumes at point E. Note that
point E is on a higher IC than pt. A (no trade point).
=> this implies trade has increased welfare for nation 1 (and
nation 2).
Note that each nation does NOT completely specialize in each good (because
of increasing cost).
-Gains from trade can be decomposed into 2 parts:
1) exchange => no change
in production (compared to no trade point) but move to a higher IC (pt.
A to T, fig.3.5, p.72)
2) specialization => change in production (pt. T to E).
-Case study 3.3 (p.76) shows percentage change in employment in the
U.S. between 1970 and 1980.
Is the table consistent with what we would predict in terms of
pattern of trade?
Are the industries where employment has fallen more or less labor
intensive than the industries where employment has increased?
-Case study 3.4 (p. 77): Why have manufacturing jobs declined in the U.S.? How much of the decline can be 'blamed' on trade?
-Trade based on differences in tastes.
-Even though nations have the exact same PPF, as long as their preferences
are different (IC's tangent to PPF at two different points) there are gains
from trade. Again, world prices will be such that each nation has
NX=0.
-What if PPFs and ICs are the same in each nation, do they gain from
trade?